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Q: In 1 Pet 1:4,23, since we are born of incorruptible seed and kept by the power of God according to 1 Pet 1:15, can a Christian lose their salvation?
A: Genuine Christians disagree on this. Christians such as John Wesley believe that while God "keeps" Christians, Christians themselves can choose to be removed from that "keeping". Others, such as myself, believe that those who genuinely made a commitment to Christ will never fall away.
All should be able to agree that while those who appear to be Christians can fall away forever, God preserves Christians who are the elect.
Q: In 1 Pet 1:9, do we have salvation yet?
A: Note that this answer is a duplicate of the discussion on Ephesians 1:13.
The Bible implies that God is timeless. For a timeless God, the answer is all three: past, present, and future.
Chuck Swindoll has written an excellent Bible Study Booklet on salvation discussing these aspects.
Past foreknowledge and predestination aspects: Before time began, God, knew the end from the beginning and all our days (Psalm 139:16; Isaiah 44:7; Ephesians 1:4; Titus 1:2)
Present event aspects: When we heard the word of truth, and called upon the Lord (Romans 10:9-10), we have become a new creation (2 Corinthians 5:17). Hebrews 4:2 and Acts 10:44 also show the present aspects.
Present continuing aspects: As we work out in our lives the salvation that is in us, God is in the process of transforming our lives. Philippians 2:12-13; 1 Peter 2:2; Hebrews 3:14; 4:11; 6:11.
Future hope aspects: We long for the completion of our salvation. (Hebrews 9:15,28; Romans 8:23-25; 1 Peter 1:4-5,9,13; 1 Corinthians 15:50-53; 2 Corinthians 5:5)
Q: In 1 Pet 1:14-16, since we cannot be sinlessly perfect and as holy as God, is God asking the impossible of us here?
A: No, but there are three points.
Positionally, it is possible for us to be declared as holy as God.
Experientially, we are not and will be sinlessly perfect in this life on earth.
In Heaven, we will have reached our goal, and our experience will match our position
Believers may not be perfect, but no believer would want ultimately to not be perfect.
Q: In 1 Pet 1:18 and Mt 15:9, is tradition always bad?
A: No. Tradition of itself can be good or bad, depending on whether it goes against God’s word or not. However, even good traditions, if they become more important to a person than God, became evil for that person.
Q: In 1 Pet 1:19, is salvation based on Jesus’ blood on the cross, or on Jesus spending three days in Hell as Kenneth Copeland said?
A: According to When Cultists Ask p.292, Copeland said "Jesus went into hell to free mankind from the penalty of Adam’s high treason … when His blood poured out it did not atone….". This was in a personal letter cited in D.R. McConnell’s A Different Gospel Hendrickson Publishers, 1988.
Here are four of many reasons why this view is wrong.
Ephesians 1:7 says we have redemption through His blood.
Revelation 1:5 also says "by his blood".
In John 19:30, Jesus said tetelestai, which is a Greek accounting term meaning "paid in full".
testify to the truth Jn 18:37; atoning sacrifice 1 Jn 3:8;4:10
Hebrews 10:14-20 says there was only one sacrifice. Hebrews 10:19-20 says this was by the blood of Jesus, through the curtain that is His body.
In Acts 20:28, Jesus bought the church with His own blood.
In summary, a bloodless Christianity is not true to God’s Word in the Bible.
Q: In 1 Pet 2:2, are we do desire the milk of the word, or meat instead of milk as Heb 5:12-14 teaches?
A: Like physical food, all are to desire milk, especially newborn Christians. However, milk is not sufficient for older children to grow into adults, and we should not remain satisfied with just milk.
Q: In 1 Pet 2:8, why did a loving God appoint some to stumble?
A: Scripture never once says God coerced anyone to sin. In fact James 1:13 says God does not tempt anyone. However, for those whom God knows will choose to completely reject Him, God appointed them to stumble in multiple ways.
Q: In 1 Pet 2:9 (KJV), how are Christians a "peculiar people"?
A: Wisecracks aside, the Greek word does not mean peculiar, strange, or odd. It means a "people of possession", of a people belonging to God. New Age Bible Versions Refuted p.11 mentions that the same Greek word is used in Ephesians 1:14, where the KJV translates it as "possession".
NIV: "a people belonging to God"
NKJV: this "His own special people" ("His" ought to be italicized for consistency)
NASB: "a people for God’s own possession".
Williams Translation: "the people to be His very own"
Green’s literal translation is the closest, saying: "a nation holy, a people for possession"
The KJV translates 1 Peter 2:9 as "But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people … who hath called you", so it is still accurate, but it could be more precise.
Q: In 1 Pet 2:10, does God not show mercy to all, since God is merciful to all He has made in Ps 145:8,18?
A: God shows a common mercy to all He has made. He gives them life, air, and sustenance. However, God has the prerogative to show special mercy on whomever He wishes. God showed special mercy to the Israelites, even after they disobeyed Him countless times. God showed special mercy to Saul or Tarsus and many people today. However, do not take God’s mercy for granted. God is just to all, but He showed special mercy to Jacob and his descendants that He did not show to Esau and his descendants, as Romans 9:11-15 shows.
Q: In 1 Pet 2:12 (KJV), is this referring to "conversation" or "behavior?
A: This refers to behavior. The King James Version word "conversation", also meant behavior almost 400 years ago.
Q: In 1 Pet 2:17, are we really to honor all in authority, even leaders of false religions, criminal gangs, and repressive governments?
A: 1 Peter 2:17 says to show proper respect to everyone, and we are to apply this command in at least four ways.
1. Specifically honor rulers in authority. Not because the person is necessarily worthy of this honor (they sometimes are not), but we are to honor their position of government. For example, in a democratic society, if we do not think highly of the Prime Minister or President, we can work hard against his or her re-election, and encourage others not to vote for him. Nevertheless, we have to realize that the person presently is our government leader. We should not speak to cheapen the authority of his or her position.
2. Show the proper respect to everyone. God created everyone, everyone bears the image of God (though in fallen form), and Christ died as a ransom for all men (1 Timothy 2:6). Even someone as wicked as Saul of Tarsus can come to Christ.
3. Our honor to all should be without regard to wealth (James 2:1-7), race or sex (Galatians 3:28-29), or youth (1 Timothy 4:12), except that we are to give special respect to the aged (Leviticus 19:32).
4. We should also honor our brothers and sisters in Christ, as part of our eternal family.
For some specific examples of how to honor people, consult 1 Timothy 5:1-8.
Q: In 1 Pet 3:1, how can a wife win her husband to Christ without saying a word?
A: Peter is not saying wives should not say a word; rather, he is affirming that the witness of their lives should be such that the husbands could be won to Christ without even hearing the Gospel from them.
Q: In 1 Pet 3:3, should women pleat their hair, wear gold or wear fancy clothes?
A: That should not be where your beauty comes from, because indeed, real and lasting beauty cannot come from that. If you think you "need" to do this to look nice, or you want to look very nice compared to other women, you should think again. Your beauty should come from your character, not from Sears or Macy’s.
All nice clothes and jewelry are not bad, however. The Lord allegorically clothed Jerusalem in fine clothes and jewelry in Ezekiel 16:10-13.
Q: In 1 Pet 3:6 (NIV), should the word be "master" or "lord"?
A: The Greek word is kyrios, which means "lord". In Hard Sayings of the Bible p.710-712, Peter H. Davids says, "…the Greek translation of the Old Testament in using kyrios, or ‘lord,’ which may mean simply the respectful ‘sir’ or could imply superior status such as ‘my lord’ would imply in traditional British usage. The Spanish term Senor has a similar range of meaning as the Greek kyrious.
However Peter refers to the master of a slave here, however, he uses another term, despotes (2:18), which shows that that is not what he is thinking about in this verse."
Q: In 1 Pet 3:6 and Gen 18:12, should a wife call her husband "lord"?
A: Peter is mentioning Sarah’s word as a commendation, not as a command. However, Peter is using Sarah’s words to illustrate the command in 1 Peter 3:5 for wives to be submissive to their husbands as the head of the family. Read Ephesians 5:22-23 for more teaching on this. See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.710-712 for more info.
Q: In 1 Pet 3:7, are women really weaker vessels?
A: Wives are generally (but not always) physically weaker than their husbands. (Some might say a fine porcelain glass is weaker than a tin cup.) However, scripture affirms that men and women are all equally valuable in God’s eyes in Galatians 3:28-29. See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.712-714 for a different answer.
Q: In 1 Pet 3:8, are we always to be courteous? Jesus, John the Baptist, Paul, and Peter were not exactly always as polite as possible.
A: This verse says to be courteous, not always courteous. Jesus, John the Baptist, and Paul were often courteous. Yet, Jesus and John the Baptist called the Pharisees a brood of vipers (Matthew 23:33; Mark 3:7) Paul was not particularly courteous in Acts 13:11 to Elymas. Peter Himself was not too polite to Simon Magus in Acts 8:20,22. Rather than take 1 Peter 3:8 in isolation, we are to understand each verse with the rest of the Bible and be courteous in general, but rebuke and be insistent when that is best, too.
Q: In 1 Pet 3:11 (KJV), what does "eschew evil" mean?
A: This King James Version expression means to turn away from evil or avoid doing evil.
Q: Does 1 Pet 3:13 mean that people who "follow the good" will never be harmed?
A: While believers will never suffer significant harm from an eternal perspective, that probably is not what the verse is referring to here.
People who are doing good will never rightfully suffer harm for doing good, and God’s people should never punish others for doing good. However, the next verse, 1 Peter 3:14, recognizes that people often suffer unjustly, in this life, for doing good.
Q: In 1 Pet 3:15, why should Christians reason about their faith, or do Jn 3:16 and Acts 16:31 imply we are simply to believe?
A: As 1 Peter 3:15 shows, we have both reason and hope. A famous adage says true faith "goes beyond reason but not against it." We cannot prove anything with absolute certainty, not even if the sun will come up tomorrow. We are to explain to others reasons why Christianity is rational and seek to persuade others to become Christians, as 2 Corinthians 5:11.
Yet we must realize that we cannot convert a single person to Christ. It is the Holy Spirit that converts people, and without the work of the Holy Spirit, there would be no hope of anyone coming to Christ. See When Critics Ask p.531-532 and When Cultists Ask p.293 for more extensive answers.
Q: In 1 Pet 3:15, how should believers give an answer with respect?
A: Three points to consider in the answer.
How not to do it: One non-Christian website, in discussing New Age, said, "[New Age] people use crystals to make contact with higher intelligences. People who pay that kind of money for rocks obviously need contact with higher intelligences." The problem with a Christian saying this is not that it criticizes the New Age movement, but that it demeans the people who are deceived by this movement.
How to do it: Inwardly, our attitude should be one of unselfish love toward the other person. We should want them to come to Christ and live in joy with God, and us, forever. Rather, than trying to be very careful with our words so that our [bad] true attitude does not show, it is better not to have bad attitudes toward others, and simply say what is on our heart.
Respect the people, but do not encourage respect for false religion: 1 Corinthians 10:20 says that the sacrifices of pagans are made to demons. Some would say Elijah was less than respectful to Baal in 1 Kings 18:27. Jesus did not respect the Sadducees doctrine in Matthew 22:29-32. Jesus’ attitude toward the Pharisee’s and their teaching was not any more hospitable in Matthew 23:13-33, calling them whitewashed tombs and a brood of vipers. On the other hand, Jesus was gracious to Nicodemus, a Pharisee, in John 3:3-10.
Q: Should 1 Pet 3:15 be translated as "demands" (NRSV), "calls you to account" (RSV), or "asks" (NIV, KJV [asketh], NKJV, NASB, Updated NASB, Williams, Wuest, Green)?
A: The Greek word here, aiteo, means "to ask (in gen.): - ask, beg, call for, crave, desire, require." According to Strong’s Concordance. So "asking" is the better translation. Many people nicely ask us for an answer to our faith; we should not refuse to answer unless they demand it!
Q: In 1 Pet 3:18, since Jesus was raised in Spirit, does that mean He was not physically resurrected, too? (JW’s and Rev. Moon’s Unification Church deny the physical resurrection)
A: No. This verse says Jesus was made alive by the Holy Spirit. Neither this verse nor any other uses the word "merely" to say Jesus was merely raised in spirit. See The Complete Book of Bible Answers p.133-136, When Critics Ask p.512-513, 532-533, and When Cultists Ask p.293-294 for more info.
Q: In 1 Pet 3:19-20, exactly where did Jesus go when He died?
A: First the short answer, and then a long answer.
Short answer: Jesus went with dead believers in Paradise. It is neither proven nor disproven that Jesus may have also been with dead unbelievers and demons.
Long answer: If we did not have any scripture on this subject, here is what all the possibilities would be
a) Nonexistence,
b) Heaven with the Father, Spirit, and all the angels
c) the place of the dead saints,
d) the place of the dead unbelievers,
e) the place of the demons
f) the place of all dead people
g) the dead saints were already in Heaven
h) the place of demons and dead unbelievers together
i) the place of all dead people and demons. (One place can have different compartments)
Here are the verses, which will prune the possibilities
Luke 23:43, To the thief on the cross, Jesus said, "Today you will be with me in Paradise" Today would be prior to the resurrection. This eliminates all the possibilities except b) c), f), g), and i). (Notice that Jesus did not say "Heaven", but "Paradise"
Acts 2:27, quoting Psalm 16:10 says Jesus went to "Hades" (Greek) and Sheol (Hebrew). This word is translated as "grave" in modern translations, and "Hell" in the King James Version. However, dead believers were there in Sheol, and unbelievers were in Sheol, too. Thus, Jesus did not go straight from the cross to Heaven. Of the five remaining possibilities, this eliminates all but c), f), and i). Jesus was with either dead saints, all dead people, and possibly demons.
Many say 1 Peter 3:19-20 and 1 Peter 4:6 also relate. See also the next question and the discussion on 1 Peter 4:6.
Q: In 1 Pet 3:19-20, who did Christ preach to here after He died?
A: First see the previous question. Genuine Christians disagree on the answer to this question.
1) Some say Christ preached to people who died before Christ’s crucifixion.
1a) Some say Christ preached to those who never had an opportunity to make a decision about the Gospel, so that they could make the same choice they would have made if they were alive. One teacher of this view was Clement of Alexandria (wrote 193-217/220 A.D.) in Stromata 6:6. Clement said those who were righteous according to God’s Law, only faith was wanting. For those who did not have the Law, but were righteous according to their philosophy, they needed both faith and repentance of idolatry. "Straightaway, on the revelation of the truth, they also repented of the previous [idolatrous] conduct." Ante-Nicene Fathers 2 p.490.
1b) Some think Christ preached only to the Old Testament (predominantly Jewish) believers.
2) Others say Christ preached to fallen angels and/or reprobate dead people, informing them of the Gospel without evangelizing them. See also 1 Peter 4:6. Many Lutherans believe this view.
3) A third view is that Christ preached "through Noah" to those who are "now" dead. See Christians Theology by Millard Erickson (Baker) p.773-776 and NIV the Making of a Contemporary Translation p.59-60 for more on this view. 1 Peter 1:11 says the "Spirit of Christ" spoke through the Old Testament prophets.
However, none of the above views mean people get a second chance after death.
As a side note, the phrase "descended into Hell" was not in the original Apostle’s Creed, but it was inserted in the Aquileian form of the Apostle’s Creed around 390 A.D..
Irenaeus in Against Heresies Book 4 ch.27 p.499. says, "It was for this reason, too, that the Lord descended into the regions beneath the earth, preaching His advent there also, and [declaring] the remission of sins received by those who believe in Him. Now all those believed in Him who had hope towards Him, that is, those who proclaimed His advent, and submitted to His dispensations, the righteous men, the prophets, and the patriarchs, to whom He remitted sins in the same way as He did to us,…"
Q: Does 1 Pet 3:19 support non-believers getting a second chance after death?
A: No. See the previous question and 1 Peter 4:6. Even though this probably refers to dead people, there is no indication that people are getting a second chance. Scripture is filled with an urgency for all who have heard to make a decision in this life before they die. In Hebrews 3:13-15 emphasizes calling on the Lord today, while it is still called "today". See The Complete Book of Bible Answers p.184-186, When Cultists Ask p.294-295, 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.447, Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.423-424 and When Critics Ask p.533-534 for more info.
Q: In 1 Pet 3:21, in what sense does water baptism save us?
A: It is obvious that Peter was not using the second half of 1 Peter 3:21 to contradict the first half of 1 Peter 3:21. It is Jesus who saves us, not the water. Since water cannot take the place of Jesus rising for us, what did Peter mean? 1 Peter 3:21 itself gives us our answer in two parts.
A. From our perspective, water baptism has no value as a ceremonial washing. Rather, water baptism is of great value as "the pledge of a good conscience toward God."
B. From God’s perspective, water baptism has no saving value. Rather, water baptism is of great value as your identification that "saves you by the resurrection of Jesus Christ." (See also Colossians 3:12).
Just as Noah was saved "through the water", not "by the water", we too are saved "through the water." In addition, here are four other key doctrines about water baptism.
1. All believers, without exception, are commanded to be baptized. (Acts 2:38)
2. The command to be baptized was never taken away. (See Matthew 28:19-20).
3. If a true believer dies before being baptized, God can still send them to be with Jesus. After all, all who have the Holy Spirit are sons of God. (Romans 8:10-11).
4. God can save people and give them the Holy Spirit prior to them being baptized (Acts 10:44-48).
Baptism is a type of circumcision, and as Romans 4:10-11, shows, Abraham’s faith was counted as righteousness before he was circumcised, and that baptism was a seal of righteousness.
In summary, baptism is not the cause of a new life in Christ. It is a believer’s pledge to God of a new life in Christ.
See also Hard Sayings of the Bible p.716-718 When Cultists Ask p.221-222 for more info on water baptism not being a condition of salvation.
Q: In 1 Pet 3:22, how can Jesus be at God’s right hand, since Jesus is God?
A: The word "God" has a number of meanings in referring to the Trinity. Sometimes God means:
Father: 1 Peter 1:2,3; Ephesians 1:3,17; 3:14; 5:20; 1 Thessalonians 1:1; 3:11; 2 Thessalonians 1:1-22; 2:16; Titus 1:4
Jesus: John 1:3; Colossians 1:16-17; Hebrews 1:6-9; John 9:38; 2 Corinthians 11:3; John 20:28-29; Revelation 5:8-9; Revelation 22:20
Spirit: Romans 8:9-16; Luke 1:35; 1 John 4:12-16; 1 Corinthians 3:16 vs. 1 Corinthians 6:19; Acts 5:4
The God in Trinity is implied in Matthew 3:16-17; 28:19; 2 Corinthians 13:14; 1 Peter 1:2; Ephesians 2:18; 3:14-17; 1 Thessalonians 1:3-5; Revelation 4:8; 1 Corinthians 12:4-6; Romans 15:16; Hebrews 9:14; Jude 20,21; 2 Thessalonians 2:13-14; John 15:26.
The two occurrences of the word "God" in Hebrews 1:6 clearly mean Jesus and the Father, respectively. In 1 Peter 3:22, "God" here means the Father. See also the discussion on Ephesians 1:3,17 for more info.
Q: In 1 Pet 4:1-2, are those who have suffered for Christ now sinless?
A: Those who have died for Christ are sinless, but that is not the main point of these verses. For those who have suffered for Christ, the temptations of sin often appear more distant and less appealing. See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.718-719 for more info.
Q: In 1 Pet 4:3 (KJV), why are "banquetings" bad?
A: This verse uses generic words that can mean parties, carousing, etc. Banqueting Roman style could be excessive, with prostitutes and deliberate vomiting up of food in order to enjoy more.
While the Bible condemns gluttony, all banquets and dinner parties, properly conducted, are not bad. Jesus attended many of them, including one held in his honor in John 12:2.
Q: In 1 Pet 4:6, how was the Gospel preached to the dead?
A: This must refer to people, not fallen angels, because fallen angels are not considered "dead". There are four possible interpretations.
1. These people are now dead, but they were alive on earth when the Gospel was preached to them. See When Cultists Ask p.296 for more on this view.
2. These people heard the Gospel after they died, and they finally had an opportunity to make the same decision for Christ they would have made if they were alive.
3. These Old Testament believers heard the Gospel after they died, and all of these were saved.
4. They Old Testament period unbelievers were informed of the Gospel they would have rejected anyway. While Difficulties in the Bible p.183-189 incorrectly thinks 1 Peter 4:6 refers to fallen angels, he does correctly point out that there are two words for "preach" in Greek. One word means "preach the Gospel", the second word means "proclaim something", and it is the second word that is used here.
However, the last part of verse 6 says "judged according to men in regard to the body, but live according to God in regard to the spirit." This indicates that interpretations 1 and 4 are incorrect. See The Complete Book of Bible Answers p.184-186 and When Critics Ask p.534-535 for a different answer. See also 1 Peter 3:19-20.
Q: In 1 Pet 4:7, in what sense was the end of all things "near"?
A: Four points to consider in the answer.
1. The Greek here is "of all things but the end has drawn near", so all things simply means "all things."
2. The term "draw near" is the same used in James 5:8 in speaking of Jesus’ Second Coming.
3. In the presence of Peter, Jesus in Matthew 24:36, said that no man knows the hour or day of Jesus’ return.
4. "Near" does not mean that Peter is predicting the day when Jesus is coming again. Rather, Peter is saying that any day now Jesus could come again. This should be motivation to "be clear minded and self-controlled so that you can pray."
See also the discussion on Philippians 4:5, 1 Thessalonians 4:15, and Revelation 22:6-20 for more info.
Q: In 1 Pet 4:8, Jms 5:20, and Prov 10:12, how does love cover a multitude of sins or wrongs?
A: Jesus covered our sins in one way by bringing forgiveness for all our sins against God, and thus, God’s love covers over a multitude of sins. However, our love for others can cover over sins in a different and lesser way. James speaks in the context of turning someone back to the truth, and 1 Peter speaks in the context of prayer and loving others deeply. Our love "covers" sins in at least three different ways.
For ourselves: Loving God and others makes us less tempted to do things that dishonor God or are not helpful to other people. As we serve others, we are often less self-centered.
For non-Believers: For both regular non-believers and heretics, helping them come to a true faith in Christ saves their soul from death and their sins are covered over.
For others: Our praying that others withstand temptation and turning others back to the truth prevents them from committing many sins. By expressing a deep love for others, we can be an encouragement to them to "carry on" and continue in their pursuit of godliness and love for others.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.706-708 and Now That’s a Good Question p.161-162 for complementary answers.
Q: In 1 Pet 4:11, how should our speech be as though God were speaking?
A: While scripture does not explicitly say, we can get a good hint by looking at the similar phrases around this verse. Whatever gift we have we should use as faithfully administering God’s grace. Just as anyone who serves should serve with the strength God provides, anyone who speaks should speak with the words God provides. It is OK to share our own opinions as our opinions, but:
1. Don’t add - Never go beyond what is written and teach our own opinions as God’s word (Proverbs 30:5-6; 1 Corinthians 4:6).
2. Don’t lose focus - Be centered on God’s word instead of human opinion (1 Corinthians 2:1-2; 1 Timothy 1:3-4,6; Colossians 2:3,8).
Q: In 1 Pet 4:12, what fiery trial was about to occur?
A: The Christians were about to undergo intense persecution by the Roman government, including frequent burning to death. It was written that Nero sometimes covered Christians with wax, and set them on fire as sort of "living candles." However, even dying in that kind of fire is better than perishing forever in the Lake of Fire.
Q: In 1 Pet 4:14, is the Spirit of glory the same as the Holy Spirit?
A: Yes. The Spirit of glory is a description of the Holy Spirit, the Spirit of God. See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.719-720 for more info.
Q: In 1 Pet 4:16 in the Greek, does it say, "that you bear that name" (NIV, NASB, Wuest, Aland), or "in this respect/matter" (NKJV, KJV, Green)?
A: Even the second way is in respect to the name of Christ, so the meaning is the same. However, as to which is correct, there are two manuscript variations. Williams Translation has "bearing this name."
Q: In 1 Pet 4:17, how does judgment begin with the family of God?
A: In two different ways: now and later.
In this life, God watches us, tests us, and disciplines us. (Hebrews 12:5-13)
In Heaven, all believers stand before what is called the "bema-seat judgment" so that they can be given rewards in Heaven for their deeds. See the discussion on 1 Corinthians 3:12-15 for more info.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.721-722 for a different answer.
Q: In 1 Pet 5:3, Php 3:17, 1 Thess 1:7 (KJV), what is an "ensample"?
A: This King James Version expression means "example". Williams Translation has "model".
Q: In 1 Pet 5:13, where is the Babylon Peter mentions?
A: Babylon was a code-word among the early Christians for Rome. It is highly unlikely Peter was in the ruins of Babylon at the time. It is also highly unlikely Peter was referring to a small military outpost in Egypt named Babylon.
Q: When was 1 Pet written?
A: Most people agree shortly after 63-64 A.D, as The Bible Knowledge Commentary - New Testament and the New Bible Dictionary show. Similarly, The NIV Study Bible and the New Geneva Study Bible say between 60-68 A.D.
For a non-Christian viewpoint, Asimov in Asimov’s Guide to the Bible p.1164 believes it was written after 90 A.D., which would be after Peter’s death, since he claims that the persecution of Domitian (81-96 A.D.) was "the first time the Christians of Asia Minor first felt organized repression from the central government."
The New Bible Dictionary (p.974-976) gives reasons why a later date is incorrect.
For the Name: In New Testament church times, but not later, the Name of Jesus was greatly emphasized. Christians suffered "for the name" (Acts 5:41; 9:16). The very name of Jesus was important in Mark 9:37,41 13:13; Luke 21:12; Acts 2:21,38; 3:6,16; 4:12,17,30; 5:28). Peter likewise said we "are reproached for the name of Christ" (1 Peter 4:14 NKJV).
No slander: In the time of Pliny, Christians were slandered with gross crimes of immorality and cannibalism, but 1 Peter does not say anything about Christians being slandered. Most tellingly, 1 Peter 4:15 mentions that, at most, Christians were criticized for being "meddlers", hardly the same level of offense. 1 Peter 3:16 talks of the ungodly speaking slander against Christian’s good behavior.
Not necessarily legislative persecution: Since the language of 1 Peter does not refer to "legislative action", 1 Peter is talking of persecution in general, not specific laws under Domitian.
See also the discussion on when 2 Peter was written.
Q: In 1 Pet, how do we know if what we have today is a reliable preservation of what was originally written?
A: There are at least three reasons.
1. God promised to preserve His word in Isaiah 55:10-11; Isaiah 59:21; Isaiah 40:6-8; 1 Peter 1:24-25; Matthew 24:35.
2. Evidence of the early church. Here are some of the writers who referred to verses in 1 Peter.
Clement of Rome 97/98 A.D., in his frequent references to scripture, quotes the last half of 1 Peter 4:8, "Love covers a multitude of sins" in chapter 49. He has two other places where he could be alluding to references common 1 Peter and other books. quoting
Shepherd of Hermas 115-140 A.D.
Polycarp 110-155 A.D.
Gospel of Truth 140-150 A.D.
Clement of Alexandria wrote 193-217/220 A.D.
Irenaeus wrote about 182-188 A.D. refers to 15 verses in 1 Peter.
Tertullian wrote about 200-220 A.D.
Origen 225-254 A.D.
Athanasius 326-373 A.D.
Hilary wrote about 355-367/368 A.D.
Ephraem 373 A.D.
Ambrose c.378 A.D.
Cyprian, bishop of Carthage (248-258 A.D.) quotes from "the epistle of Peter to Pontus" in Treatise 12 The Third Book 36,37,39. Cyprian is the only writer who adds "to Pontus" when describing this letter. (Pontus was in north-central Asia Minor.)
As a side note, the Muratorian Canon (c.170 A.D.) did not include James, Hebrews, or 1 and 2 Peter.
3. Evidence of heretics and other writers
Priscillian (385 A.D.) refers to 1 Peter 1:22; 5:8.
4. Earliest manuscripts we have of 1 Peter show there are small manuscript variations, but zero theologically significant errors.
p72 Bodmer 7 & 8 Papyrii 1 Peter 1:1-5:14, 2 Peter 1:1-3:18 and Jude 1-25. c.300 A.D. A photograph of part of this manuscript (showing 2 Peter 1:16-2:2) is in The Eerdmans’ Bible Dictionary p.820 and The Complete Text of the Earliest New Testament Manuscripts p.468. The second source says the handwriting is written "in a documentary hand."
p74 (=Bodmer 17) Acts 1:2-5,7-11,13-15,18-19,22-25; 2:2-4; 2:6-3:26; 4:2-6,8-27; 4:29-27:25; 27:27-28:31; James 1:1-6,8-19,21-23,25,27; 2:1-3,5-15; 18-22, 25-26; 3:1,5-6,10-12,14,17-18; 4:8,11-14; 5:1-3,7-9,12-14,19-20; 1 Peter 1:1-2,7-8,13,19-20,25; 2:6-7,11-12,18,24; 3:4-5; 2 Peter 2:21; 3:4,11,16; 1 John 1:1,6; 2:1-2,7,13-14,18-19,25-26; 3:1-2,8,14,19-20; 4:1,6-7,12,16-17;5:3-4,9-10,17; 2 John 1,6-7,13; 3 John 6,12; Jude 3,7,12,18,24 (7th century)
7th century - 1968 - The Text of the New Testament has James 2:4 and 1 Peter 1:12
7th century - 1975 - Aland et al. Third Edition
6th century - 1998 - Aland et al. Fourth Revised Edition
p81 1 Peter 2:20-3:1; 3:4-12 (4th century)
Vaticanus (325-350 A.D.), Sinaiticus (340-350 A.D.), and Alexandrinus (c.450 A.D) have all of 1 Peter.
Bohairic Coptic 3rd/4th century
Sahidic Coptic 3rd/4rth century
Peshitta Syriac [Syr P] 375-400 A.D.
Ephraemi Rescriptus 5th century
Armenian [Arm] from 5th century
Georgian [Geo] from 5th century
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